Outrage over cops killing unarmed blacks: Why in THIS case, but not a peep in the other?

I’m trying to figure out why there’s epic riots over one police slaying of a black American, as in this case, riots so bad that the paramilitary cops finally got to use their military-type MRAP vehicles (“tanks”)…

… but there wasn’t any big deal made in this case, the infamous police execution of an unarmed woman in Washington, a slaying that wasn’t treated like a big deal at all by the same black rioters as in the other case.

I’m wondering… were the riots in the more recent case actually community-organized by agent provocateurs within the community?  What other explanation for the stark difference in both cases?

Read about both at each link.

You be the judge.


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